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<div class="moz-cite-prefix">On Monday 17 October 2016 09:47 PM,
Greg Shatan wrote:<br>
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<div class="gmail_quote">I would like to clarify one statement
that I made earlier, since it seems to have been
misunderstood.</div>
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snip<br>
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<div><font face="verdana, sans-serif"> <b>It appears that in
Civil law, stemming from Roman law, the terms
<div class="gmail_default"
style="font-family:verdana,sans-serif;display:inline">"public
law" and "private law" </div>
are used
<div class="gmail_default"
style="font-family:verdana,sans-serif;display:inline">to
distinguish and </div>
define
<div class="gmail_default"
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respectively</div>
(i) laws
<div class="gmail_default"
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created by the state</div>
governing the activities of the state and the
interaction between the state and the individual or
private entity vs. laws
<div class="gmail_default"
style="font-family:verdana,sans-serif;display:inline">created
by the state </div>
governing the activities of individuals/private entities
and their interaction with each other.
<div class="gmail_default"
style="font-family:verdana,sans-serif;display:inline">
Thus, in Civil Law, public law and private law
together make up the entire body of state-created
law. By contrast, in Common Law usage, at least in
the U.S., "public law" refers to the entire body of
state-created law.</div>
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<div><font face="verdana, sans-serif"><b><br>
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<div><font face="verdana, sans-serif">
<div class="gmail_default"
style="font-family:verdana,sans-serif;display:inline"><b></b>(As
a side note, judge-made precedent generally does not
have the binding effect in Civil Law that it does in
Common Law, but that's not really relevant here.) <b></b></div>
<br>
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<div><span style="font-family:verdana,sans-serif">
<div class="gmail_default"
style="font-family:verdana,sans-serif;display:inline">Moving
on, </div>
I think
<div class="gmail_default"
style="font-family:verdana,sans-serif;display:inline">the
distinction between "private law" and "public law"
creates confusion rather than clarity in this
discussion. Perhaps it would be better to distinguish
between "state actions" (i.e., disputes initiated by the
state against a private party) and "private actions"
(i.e., disputes initiated by one private party against
another).</div>
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<br>
There are many cases where either state or a private party could
initiate action under the same law.....<br>
<br>
IMHO, the real distinction that we may be interested in about
whether (1) choice of jurisdiction is available or (2) not . We as a
group are looking at what we/ ICANN can "do" about the jurisdiction
issue, and therefore the degrees of freedom available is the key
element to consider here.<br>
<br>
In cases where choice of jurisdiction may be available, as in
writing contracts, we have a set of issues and recs to determine,
for instance, if a contract is regarding activities that are largely
going to take place in one particular country, it may be prudent to
put that choice of jurisdiction in the contract. This WG can perhaps
give a set of recs like this one.<br>
<br>
In cases where no choice of jurisdiction is available, the key issue
to determine is (1) whether this situation is sufferable, and the
problems it creates are not too acute and/ or can be contained in
other ways, and/or (2) whether any possibility of immunisation from
US jurisdiction is available, and workable. <br>
<br>
parminder <br>
<br>
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<div><span style="font-family:verdana,sans-serif">
<div class="gmail_default"
style="font-family:verdana,sans-serif;display:inline">Greg</div>
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