[tz] Proposal to use Asia/Tel_Aviv for Israel - Jerusalem is not internationally recognized as part of Israel

Marc Lehmann schmorp at schmorp.de
Wed May 8 12:23:24 UTC 2013

On Tue, May 07, 2013 at 05:15:04PM -0400, random832 at fastmail.us wrote:
> On Tue, May 7, 2013, at 16:01, Marc Lehmann wrote:
> > Yes, at least one timezone exists for any region, by definition, as
> > long as that region actually has a physical location, as the timezone
> > identifiers are meant to (roughly) identify the largest city within a
> > region (where region is not defined by political boundaries).
> This is where you are mistaken.

You surely have some evidence to back this up?

The timezone database has always defined timezone regions that way.
Saying it ain't so doesn't make it so.

> The regions are _absolutely_ defined by political boundaries. It's why

That is your _goal_, yes, but where does it say so? For one thing, the
ISO 3166 codes do not define regions nor political boundaries, nor do the
timezone identifier define political boundaries (but regions).

It really seems to me that you want to unilaterally redefine the meaning
of timezones and regions to further your political agenda - if you
interpret the timezone database data traditionally and without prejuduice
it doesn't say what you wish it to say.

The political interpretation of the data is yours alone.

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